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I think the difference might be that ?????? means "something holy" (just as ????? means "something edible"), whereas ????????? is the abstract noun "holiness."

The form ????????? doesn't seem to appear in Tanach; things there are always described as ?????? or ??????, with the former often - but not always - modifying a noun in construct form. So ??? ??? would mean "the Shabbos which is holy," ?????? ???? would mean "in Your words which are holy," and so forth. (Temurah 1:1 quotes the Biblical ??????? ??????? and explains it as ????? ??? ????, which is a good example of the difference: the Torah is speaking in the active form, "it shall be a holy object," whereas the Mishnah uses the passive "holiness takes effect on it.")

(Although I once saw a note - it might have been in the Metsudah siddur, but I don't remember for certain - that R. Yaakov Kamenetsky zt"l noted that the standard translation of ??? ???? as "the holy city" is incorrect, and it should be "the city of holiness." I think his point was that if ???? was an adjective modifying ???, then it would have had to be in the feminine form ???????????. According to that, then, ?????? would indeed mean "holiness," and there'd be no difference in meaning between that and ????????? - we would have to assume that it's simply a difference between Biblical and Rabbinic Hebrew.)


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